Objective Questions on Human Rights 1993 for MP SET
1.
1.which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill.
Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment bill in parliament.
.President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both houses.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
Ans- B
2. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Ans. A – Second schedule – Simple majority only.
3.Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution.
1.Supremacy of the Constitution.
2.Rigid Constitution.
3.Independent Judiciary.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans-D
4.Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.
1.In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2.In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans. A – Legislative power rests with both whereas executive power rests with state
5.Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.
1.During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2.During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the states.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans- C
6.Which of the following statements are correct.
1.The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2.The state Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans- C
7.Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency.
A. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority.
B. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
C. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
D. None of these.
Ans. D – Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by LS only with simple majority.
8.Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state (Article 356).
1.Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.
2.Serious maladministration in the state.
3.Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans. A – Refer Bommai case (1994)
9.Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360).
1.It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2.A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by simple majority.
3.The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans B – Once approved by both the houses of parliament, the financial emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
10. The Electoral College for President’s election consist of:
1.Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
2.Elected members of the legislative assemblies.
3.Elected members of all Union Territories.
A. 1.
B. 2 & 3.
C. 1 & 2.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans. C – Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the UT Delhi & Puducherry only
11. Which o the following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers of a state
1.ResignatioMinister.
2.Death of Chief Minister.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans- C
12 Which of the following statements are correct:
1.President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LS.
2.Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LA.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans. A – Governor can nominate only one.
13. When in a bicameral legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected by the council:
A. Will be considered in a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.
B. The assembly can override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without any amendments.
C. The council does not have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and hence the bill is deemed to have passed.
D. The bill ends and becomes dead.
Ans- B
14. Chief Justice of High court is appointed by:
A. The President after consultation with the CJI.
B. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state.
C. The Governor on the recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI.
D. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI.
Ans- D
15. Which of the following statements are correct:
1.The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its territorial jurisdiction.
2.An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly against the decision of a tribunal.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans- A
16. Correct statements with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are:
1.The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels.
2.Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the recommendation of the State Legislature.
3.The 73rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states except J&K.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 2 & 3 only.
Ans - C
17. Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:
1.The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
2.The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans- A – 2. The act does not apply to the states of J&K, Nagaland, Meghalaya, & Mizoram and certain other areas. 3. SEC can be removed on like manner as a judge of HC.
18. Corrects statement/s with regard to Election Commission is/are:
1.The constitution debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
2.The election commission is not concerned with the elections to state legislatures, for this the constitution provides for a separate state election commission.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-D
19. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):
1.President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
2.JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the powers of a SPSC.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans- D – Parliament can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned. JSPC will be a statutory body and not constitutional.
20. Which of the following are quasi judicial bodies:
1.Finance Commission.
2.Central Vigilance Commission
3.National Human Rights Commission.
4.Central Information Commission.
5.Competition Commission of India.
6.Union Public Service Commission.
7.National Commission for SCs.
A. All except 1, 2 & 6.
B. All except 2, 4 & 6.
C. All except 6.
D. None of the above options are correct.
Ans-C
21. he Jurisdiction of CAT extends to:
1.Secretarial staff of Parliament.
2.Civilian employees of Defense Services.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans. B
22. My friend described a tribunal in the following manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
He/she is probably referring to:
A. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
B. National Green Tribunal (NGT).
C. He/she is either referring to CAT or to NGT.
D. He/she is neither referring to CAT nor to NGT.
Ans-C.
23. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1.Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right.
2.Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. Non.
Ans-C.
24. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1.If somebody is convicted for some offence and he is sentenced to imprisonment for 3 years he cannot contest elections.
2.A person cannot contest from more than two constituencies for a Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha election.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-C.
25. Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
1.The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
2.No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
3.The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code.
4.Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language.
A. 1, 2, 3 only.
B. 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
Ans-D.
26. Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act 1935:
1.Office of the Governor.
2.Emergency Provisions.
3.Legislative Procedure.
4.Bicameralism.
5.Federation with a strong center.
A. 1, 2 & 4 only.
B. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
C. 1 & 2 only.
D. None of the above options are correct.
Ans-C.
27. Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42nd Amendment act in our Preamble:
1.Socialist.
2.Secular.
3.Republic.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans-A.
28. Which of the following statements are incorrect:
1.The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.
2.Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
3.Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans-D.
29. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1.Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
2.Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-B.
30. Which of the following subject/s is/are enumerated in the concurrent list:
1.Actionable wrongs.
2.Education.
3.Protection of wild Animals and Birds.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans-D.
31. Article 14 says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to article 14.
1.Equality before the law is a negative concept whereas equal protection of law is a positive concept.
2.The concept of equality before the law is of British origin whereas equal protection of law is of American origin.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-C.
32. Which of the following statements is/are true:
1.High court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
2.Territorial jurisdiction of SC for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a High Court.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-C.
33. Which of the following statement with regard to Directive Principles is/are correct:
1.Courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and invalid.
2.Courts can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a directive.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-C.
34. Which of the following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.
1.Second Schedule.
2.Fifth Schedule.
3.Sixth Schedule
4.Seventh Schedule.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 4 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
Ans-D.
35. In which of the following cases parliament can make laws in any matter enumerated in the state list.
1.During National Emergency.
2.During Presidents Rule.
3.To Implement International Agreements.
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 4 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3 only.
Ans-D.
36. Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental right. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.
1.Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency and not in the case of Internal emergency.
2.Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal emergency.
3.Article 358 suspends FR under article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.
4.Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas article 359 may extend to entire country or part of it.
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1, 2 & 3 only.
C. 2, 3 & 4 only.
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
Ans-D.
37. Choose the correct statements from below:
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company.
2. The Pitt’s India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta.
3. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company’s territories in India as British possessions.
4. Pitt’s India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs.
A. Only a,b,c is correct.
B. Only a,c,d is correct.
C. Only a,d is correct.
D. All are correct.
Ans-C) a,d is correct.
38. Correct statement
1. The Pitt’s India Act created Board of Control to manage political affairs.
2. The Pitt’s India Act created the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong
Ans- A
39. Choose the correct answer
a. Charter Act of 1833 created the post Governor General of India.
b. Charter Act, 1833 deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers.
c. Charter Act, 1853 introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants.
d. Macaulay Committee on the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian Police Act,1861.
A. Only a,b is correct.
B. Only a,c is correct.
C. Only a,b,c is correct.
D. a,b,c,d is correct.
Ans- C
40. The 15 member Council of India was setup under which act?
1. Indian Councils Act,1861
2. Indian Councils Act, 1892
3. Government of India Act,1858.
4. Indian Councils Act,1909
Ans- A
41. In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?
1.External Aggression.
2.Internal Emergency.
3.When Martial Law is in force.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans-1 only.
42. Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1.Right to Education.
2.Right to Information.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-2 only.
43. Article 21 declares that –
“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
The protection under article 21 is:
A. Against arbitrary legislative action.
B. Against arbitrary executive action.
C. Both A & B.
D. None.
Ans-C.
44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
1.Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article 19 (1) of the constitution.
2.Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans-A
45. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t article 32.
1.Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2.Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR.
Correct statement/s is/are:
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
Ans D – Only President can suspend this right during national emergency. HC can also issue writs for enforcement of FR.
46. Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
1.Right to speedy trial.
2.Right against delayed execution.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
Ans-C.
47. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A. Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus.
B. Certiorari & Mandamus.
C. Prohibition & Mandamus.
D. Prohibition & Certiorari.
Ans- B – Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
48. The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally non – enforceable because:
1.The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2.There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None
Ans-C.
49. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
1.The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2.The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3.The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 & 3 only.
C. 1 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3.
Ans B – FR establishes political democracy.
50. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
1.Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2.The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both.
D. None.
Ans. C –
Objective Questions on Human Rights 1993 for MP SET 
Reviewed by Bhavana Jain on 09:26:00 Rating:
Reviewed by Bhavana Jain on 09:26:00 Rating:
No comments:
Note: only a member of this blog may post a comment.